swapnillamsal
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  • 08-02-2022
  • Mathematics
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If f: R → R is defined by f(x) = x and g: R→R is defined by g(x) = x then (fog) (x) is
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Аноним Аноним
  • 08-02-2022

As [tex]R → R[/tex] is defined by [tex]f(x) = x[/tex] and [tex]g(x) = x[/tex],

So, [tex]f[/tex] and [tex]g[/tex]have the same domain. Therefore,

[tex](fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x) = x[/tex]

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